I have some questions about two versions of Mahāparinibbāna Sutta DN 16: T 6 in Chinese and SF 245 in Sanskrit.
I don’t know any ancient Buddhist languages, but I’m still very much interested in parallel versions since they help broaden my knowledge in EBT and knowing more than one version of a text is better I think. So, with the Chinese lookup tool, which is awesome, I could find at least 8 things in T 6 that are in common with DN 16 and DA 2 such as: the four sacred places, the teachings have no distinction of inside and outside, noble ones are only found in the noble eightfold path, etc. There are also at least three things that T 6 has in common with SF 245: causes of earthquake, the more down-to-earth depiction of the fetching the water story, and the lack of Ven Ananda’s questions about what to do with women.
Now there’s one passage that I couldn’t find in T 6 but occurs in both DN 16 and DA 2: the passage about giving the Buddha the highest worship.
In DN 16 it goes like this: "Any monk or nun or male or female lay follower who practices in line with the teachings, practicing properly, living in line with the teachings—they honor, respect, revere, venerate, and esteem the Realized One with the highest honor. " (Ven Sujato’s translation).
In DA 2, I think it’s this sentence: “佛語阿難：「人能受法，能行法者，斯乃名 曰供養如來。」”
I have been trying to find a similar passage in T 6 but to no avail. Since there is no Sanskrit lookup tool, SF 245 is also out of the question as well. So, could anyone who knows Buddhist Chinese please confirm that such passage is indeed absent in T 6 or if it is actually my ignorance of Buddhist Chinese that prevents me from finding it? If there is also someone who knows Sanskrit, could you please tell me if a similar passage also occurs in SF 245 and point to it? I find it hard to believe that such a practical and sensible instruction only occurs in Vibhajjavadin versions.
Another question that I have is about the term “Sanskrit”. From what I know, Mahavastu is actually in BHS (Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit), but its language is still referred to as Sanskrit. Indic Sarvastivadin texts, like the Udanavarga and the Dirghagama, according to some scholars (such as Eli Franco, Franklin Edgerton, and a Japanese scholar whose name I regrettably can’t recall) are also more or less BHS. Yet, they are still referred to as Sanskrit. Is it that the word “Sanskrit” is used as an umbrella term like how the word “Sarvastivada” is used in the same way for Buddhist schools that are related to it? I’m not challenging its usage; I’m genuinely curious.
*If you are going to answer my questions, please carefully read them first, refrain from giving unrelated answers, and please do not go off-topic. Thank you very much.
(Edit: why is my topic moved from Q&A to Discussion? This is not meant to be a discussion topic at all. I simply asked specific questions and would like to get answers to them. My questions are neither open-ended nor primarily opinion-based.)