Hello Friends,
How do you understand the meaning of “agreeable” and “disagreeable” in MN 152?
when a bhikkhu sees a form with the eye, there arises in him what is agreeable, there arises what is disagreeable, there arises what is both agreeable and disagreeable.
The Pali is manāpaṃ / amanāpaṃ. A quick survey of its usage in other suttas seems to indicate that they mean generally pleasant or unpleasant sense experience, without necessarily implying greed or aversion associated with them.
But in MN 152, these are said to arise “within” one, and one is instructed to see them as “conditioned, gross, and dependently arisen”, whereupon equanimity immediately arises and “both the agreeable and disagreeable cease”.
If the meaning is simply “pleasant and unpleasant sense experience”, then what was happening that would necessitate setting up equanimity? We can assume greed, aversion, or some other kind of agitation was arising. But later in the sutta, the exact same conditions are repeated for the arahant:
And how, Ānanda, is one a noble one with developed faculties? Here, Ānanda, when a bhikkhu sees a form with the eye…hears a sound with the ear…smells an odor with the nose…tastes a flavor with the tongue…touches a tangible with the body…cognizes a mind-object with the mind, there arises in him what is agreeable, there arises what is disagreeable, there arises what is both agreeable and disagreeable.
So it seems that the agreeable and disagreeable couldn’t, by themselves, imply greedy or aversive reactions.
The sutta also discusses the sekha, who also has the agreeable and disagreeable arise within. But the sekha…
is ashamed, humiliated and disgusted by the agreeable that arose, by the disagreeable that arose, and by the both agreeable and disagreeable that arose.
…which would seem to indicate that the agreeable and disagreeable is unskillful (unless it means that the sekha in this example is simply experiencing nibbidā toward all conditioned experience).
So, questions for this thread are:
- How should agreeable/disagreeable be understood here?
- If it implies greed, aversion, or agitation, why does the arahant experience it?
- If it doesn’t imply greed, aversion, or agitation, why does the sekha have nibbidā toward it?