Is Dependent Origination a parody of Vedic cosmology?

Okay, I’m reading Jurewicz now and making some remarks along the way.

Another commonality, although less precise, is that the created beings first reflect on Brahma and their status in relation to him.

I think what she’s getting at is that the Upanishads constantly speak of “the unseen seer, the unheard hearer, the unthought thinker, the unknown knower”. The Upanishads and the suttas treat the situation of ordinary cognition as complex and unstable. The Upanishads resolve it by merging into to ocean of consciousness, the suttas by the ending of consciousness.

To phrase the discussion as “subject-object duality” is to introduce an idea from later thought which I would avoid personally. The concept of “object” is just as problematic when applied to Vedism as it is in early Buddhism. The very idea of an “object” is something that exists “objectively”, but in Vedism everything is ultimately an aspect of the self, so that even things that appear to exist externally only do so in a transient way that will ultimately resolve back to the Self. Likewise in the suttas, things externally exist in relation to cognition, not as independent “objects”.

Although I think the phrasing is unfortunate, I don’t think the point she’s getting at is too far off the mark. Of course this is just an aspect of DO, it’s not really the problem DO sets out to solve.

On pg. 171 she says DO is a “simple linear process” which is an oversimplification at best.

One valid point she makes is that the Buddha expressed himself in “explicit language”, this being one of the key features of the Buddha’s teaching as compared to the Vedas and Upanishads (“for the gods love hidden things”, parokṣapriyā iva hi devāḥ).

On avijja she makes the rather subtle but, I think, valid point that asat conveys unknowability. Generally speaking words for knowability and existence are closer in Indic than in English (eg. paññāyati, loka, etc.). Still, it remains the fact that this is not very convincing if considered as a direct response.

More directly, “darkness” is an obvious metaphor for ignorance. The creative power that births the One from darkness is tapas, which regardless of whether it is an actual parallel or not, is functionally equivalent to sankhara in DO, which is oddly not noted by Jurewicz.

In this whole passage she basically discusses only the Satapathabrahmana, which begs the question, what of the Nasadiya? I’m surprised on rereading how little use she actually makes of the Nasadiya. She says that it was the first creation myth, then others followed along the same lines. Okay, there is truth to that, but it also allows her to cherry-pick things she thinks are similar, without really giving due value to the ways the ideas change and evolve, and why they are presented in a certain way in a certain text.

And I agree, the inferences in this passage are absurdly distant. In no way is DO an actual response or polemic related to this passage. At best it shows some contextual usage of saṅkhāra before Buddhism.

On vijñāna, her discussion is based on the Taittiriya Upanishad, again not mentioning the Nasadiya at all, and using a method that actually gives the opposite of an actual parallel. She points to the five koshas, fine, then says we can reverse them to make a cosmogenesis (which, dubious but okay). The problem is that in the direct order mano leads to vijñāna. Now mano is frequently used in active contexts where it has a similar sense to saṅkhāra, and of course we find manosaṅkhāra at this point in DO. So the forward order from mano to vijñāna is in fact similar to DO’s saṅkhāra to viññāṇa, but she flips it for obscure reasons missing the actual parallel to create a false one.

In any case, if it is a parallel it is a slim one.

Again, it seems to me there is a simpler and more direct parallel in the Nasadiya, since the One was birthed by tapas, and that One (= brahman) is elsewhere equated with vijñāna. It’s a pretty small step from tapas (heat) birthing the One, to saṅkhāra (energy) birthing consciousness.

Interesting. It has the sense “to pour out” and clearly invokes the offering of soma to the fire. The Buddha’s terminology is more “scientific”.


The discussion of āyatana refers to two occurrences of the word in a creation myth in the Aitareya Upanishad, where the “senses” find an “abode”, which is the puruṣa. Hmm, interesting. It certainly argues against the implausible commentarial idea that āyatana means “base” as a cause.

Also note that the Sanskrit Cologne dictionary notes a huge range of meanings for āyatana, which it says are mostly attested in Buddhist texts. So it seems that, for whatever reason the Buddha used the term, he did employ it much more prominently.

Right, and even more odd because once again she prefers, like the Vedas themselves, the hidden and obscure to the obvious and clear. It doesn’t take a Buddha to see that desire lies at the root of human activity. And there are countless cases in the Upanishads where thirst motivates creation.

The Aitareya Upanishad, which she has just quoted, is a good example. When the “deities”, i.e. the separate aspects of a sentient beings , still lost and formless in the ocean, experience hunger and thirst, and for this reason He creates the purusha for them, so that they can eat. No need for a detour via a fire metaphor.

I mean fair enough, fire metaphors are common and important, and in some cases clearly draw on a Vedic context (eg. the Aditapariyayasutta). But there’s a difference between postulating an affinity and using this connection to prove a point.

She says (p. 178)

the last three links of the pratityasamutpada evidently may refer to the activity of fire which may come into being, be born, and die because it burns the fuel. This is how the Buddha interpreted it.

To support this rather bold claim, she refers to a Polish translation of a 1924 German article by Oldenberg (!) It’s an odd way to argue, and not really true as it stands. Sure, there’s a metaphorical connection, but DO isn’t talking about fire, and never explains these terms in this way.

On bhava, she refers to a passage where the causative form is used in the sense to “nourish” or “make grow” the child. Okay, but again, bhava has deep roots in the idea “to grow”, so this is hardly a meaningful connection.

She also points a couple of times to usages in later Buddhism as possible correlations, but this is extremely unlikely, as later Buddhists apparently almost entirely worked internally by developing the ideas of the suttas, not responding to Vedism.

More specifically, she says it is “surely significant that the locus classicus for DO is called the mahanidanasutta”. I mean, no? It’s just a long sutta on causality? This is really just cherry-picking off the surface. Anyway, DN 15 is no locus classicus: it’s a late expanded sutta.

I mean, there are just as many parallels with the Genesis story of creation. Creation stories tend to follow a pattern. And that pattern reflects multiple layers of reality in a complex way:

  • metaphysical postulation
  • evolution of earth and life
  • growth of the individual

You can find these layers in pretty much any creation myth. And it also seems to me that, in its own way, DO serves some of the purposes of a creation myth, and echoes these different layers.


Ultimately, I’d have to say I agree with you. I think the correlations she proposes are nowhere near as convincing as she thinks. In many cases it seems to me that we could actually make a stronger and simpler case. Nonetheless, it is still an interesting argument and raises a range of important issues in challenging ways.

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A bigger danger IMHO is that a lot of Buddhist teachers confidently state things as the Buddha’s teachings when they are are in fact Upanishadic teachings refuted by the Buddha. :person_shrugging:

One basic principle: look where the sutta points. If it says, “Brahma said this”, and you look in the Upanishads and yep, Brahma does in fact say that, then, as with the example cited by Sunyo above, you’re on solid ground.

OTOH, DO is said to be something that came from the Buddha’s meditative insight, so there’s no real reason from the Buddhist side to think the Buddha connected it with the Vedas…

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Agree, thank you Bhante. I find a lot of the Buddhist books I read when I was young were guilty of this, and now in my old age I have to unlearn some of them :frowning:

Even now we hear people claiming the Buddha said the world is an illusion, or when we become enlightened we become “one” with the “universe” etc. etc.

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If we are actually willing to consider it, I think there is evidence of interest in subject-object dualism in the EBTs, at least in the experience of duality and non duality of subject and object, if not a developed philosophy. I think that if we are willing to open our eyes in meditation both literally and figuratively, we see this in MN 119. Note: nowhere in the canon are there instructions to close our eyes.

What are we mindful of when we are mindful of what is in front “us”. When I look at what is in front of me I see the world, all objects. These objects are “not us”. “Us” being the subject.

What is unified? The only candidates are “us” and what is in front of us. What is left after unification? I think the answer is in Ud 1.10, “there is no you in that.” I take it we are left with just “that” which is what was “in front of us” minus the “us”.

Experientially, we experience an “us” and a world in front of us and around us. In other words, we are “in that”. That is, we sense our bodies and minds being back here instead of out there in front of us. We feel our bodies and minds located in space and when we look down we feel the weight of our feet down where we see our feet. I believe these is called proprioception and binding in brain science parlance. If these two processes are stilled then the sense of you being in the world ends, at least for the time being.

Added later: proprioception applies even when eyes are closed so this could work even with eyes closed. That said, MN 119 does say “establish mindfulness in front them.”

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Yes, Buddha does in fact say there is no ‘I’ in seeing/hearing/thinking etc. But also teaches dependent origination as in “Things that rise due to conditions ceases when conditions cease”. As such there is an “I” that we see arisen due to craving, ignorance and other conditions. We also makes choices, do things etc which is evident in our daily lives.

Buddha makes no claim to deny such a reality and substitute a different one.
Vedism seems to support an ultimate reality - an Atman. Similarly Mahayana seems to suggest an emptiness as the reality.

[Tagging @Sunyo]

I tend to agree as well.

I know in the past on this forum I have drawn a lot from Jurewicz, and if anybody is interested I made a rather elaborate post connecting the Aggañña Sutta, Dependent Arising, and specific myth from the Brhadaranyaka in more precise ways [here]. I haven’t looked at it in some time but I found interesting things to my mind at least.

But I think that the Aggañña Sutta and the connections found there to Vedic myth + dependent arising are as Bhante @sujato has said: they raise more questions about the compilers and the spread of ideas. Did the Buddha make these connections? It’s very probable not exactly. Are they direct responses or just cultural trends of thinking and formulating creation? What is the relationship between the myth form and the more concrete and abstracted dependent arising expression — broad similarity, one influenced by the other, etc.

Personally, I think the most valuable thing is to be able to see correspondences with the way people of the Buddha’s time thought, expressed ideas, and responded to relevant philosophical and ethical matters. So we know fire, eating, thirst, desire, creation, etc. were important concepts for many aspects of the discourse. We can look at these elements across traditions and build a deeper understanding of potential implications in the suttas. But we cannot say, usually, that they are direct responses, from the Buddha himself, or much else with any certainty beyond the bare bones correlation.

So as far as my prior post and the “conclusions” I saw, I wouldn’t think the same today. A better way of phrasing it is that there is no doubt that descriptions, depictions, and terminology surrounding dependent arising are embedded within a culture familiar with Vedic thought, and that the various reciters and redactors of the suttas were able to make these connections. But not that dependent arising is intended to be a re-framing and confirmation of Vedic cosmogony itself.

Mettā

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Hello everyone,

I’ve finally had a chance to reread Jurewicz’s paper, and would like to humbly offer my thoughts.

An upfront disclaimer: my knowledge of Vedic philosophy and thinking can only be described as rudimentary, and therefore my ruminations, as they were, are emerging and nascent. I apologise if they come across as naive or undeveloped, and I welcome any feedback on errors and improvements. I also will like to disclose in parallel I have been reading Gombrich’s “Theravada Buddhism” and my views are no doubt influenced and coloured by Gombrich’s own views on Buddhism. In mitigation, I can only observe that I seem to be in illustrious company, as Jurewicz herself quotes Gombrich in her paper, and the paper was published by the PTS during Gombrich’s tenure as president, and was evidently sponsored by Gombrich himself, as he is so taken by the paper he quotes it in no less than 3 of his books and in some of his lectures.

On the surface, I would agree with @Sunyo and @sujato - the connections described by Jurewicz between DO and Vedic cosmogony would appear somewhat tenuous, even to my inexperienced and uneducated eyes. However, I also note that Jurewicz pointed out in paragraph 2 of her paper that she is well aware that the specific contexts of Vedic creation and Buddha’s DO are fundamentally different. I don’t think she is claiming isomorphic equivalence between the two, but merely that one can be taken as an allegory or allusion to the other, perhaps for pedagogical reasons, either by the Buddha himself or perhaps retroactively reconstructed by his followers as a response to Brahmanic or Vedic viewpoints.

A good question to ponder, as raised by @Sunyo in the original post, is how much was the Buddha aware of Vedic philosophy and ideas, and why would he want to reference the Vedic creation myth in his awakening?

The traditionally accepted and popular view of the Buddha’s life is that he is of noble birth (from the kṣatriya caste) and he would have been exposed to Vedic doctrine by his clan’s purohita (royal brahmin adviser and chief priest), and therefore he should be familiar with the Ṛg Veda and some of the earlier Upanisads. In any case, it has been observed that Buddhism itself seems like an evolution of the ideas contained in the Bṛhad-āraṇyaka.

However, there is an alternate (and perhaps more historically accurate) view that the Buddha came from a community called the Śākyas (the Buddha himself noted that his disciples should call themselves followers of Sakya, and arguably the Sangha is modelled after the Sakyan community that Buddha grew up in). Although the Buddha’s father was undoubtedly the head of a household, and perhaps even a leader of the tribe, Buddha wouldn’t have grown up exposed to Vedic teachings and perhaps would have acquired them either as a wandering ascetic or later in life when confronted with brahmin opponents during his travels.

We do know that much of the Buddha’s teachings can be seen as a refutal of central Vedic principles and concepts, whilst others appear to be a logical extension. By my analysis (happy to receive feedback), the core points that the Buddha refuted are:

  1. the Vedic sacrifice as a ritual that reaffirms the Cosmic Man’s cosmogonic sacrifice (referenced by Jurewicz) and intricately tied to the notion of fire as the vital principle that represented the origin of life and consciousness. In Buddhist philosophy, the “fire” is the craving caused by the fuel of the 5 khandhas.
  2. the Vedic notion of the eternal unchanging self (ātman/attā). In Buddhist philosophy, what we perceive as a “self” is in fact ever changing and driven by the 5 khandhas.
  3. the Vedic caste system. The Buddha didn’t actually refute this, but stated that anyone can attain realisation rather than just the upper castes, and a “true” brahmin is one defined by knowledge rather than birth. The Buddha does lean upon Vedic reliance on the “householder” (gahapati) responsibilities to the other castes, particularly in providing support to religious practitioners such as himself.
  4. the Vedic notion of kamma as ritualistic practice that gains merit. The Buddha asserts that karma is wholly determined by intentions and not by the observance of an action itself.
  5. the Vedic notion of gnosis as the union between the ātman and the universal principle of brahman and ultimately with the God Brahma himself. The Buddhist gnosis is self-realisation and liberation through the cessation of craving.
  6. the Vedic dhamma as a sacred law of nature. The Buddhist dhamma is meant to be independently verified through direct experience.

I believe that in order to provide an infrastructure supporting the above refutals, at some point the Buddha (or his followers) would have wanted to reference the Vedic creation myth. And hence the connections between the specific ordering of the DO elements against the Vedic framework would appear plausible, even if they may not have represented the Buddha’s actual thought processes upon awakening. Whether we like it or not, Vedic doctrine and it’s proponents was the main “competitor” to the Buddha in his lifetime. To be able to address prevailing Vedic philosophy and ideas would be a priority for the Buddha and his followers, in order to attract new recruits and address objections proposed by his opponents.

I suspect the Buddha’s teachings would have a different emphasis were he alive today. He may have contrasted and compared the Buddhist conceptual model with Christianity or Islam instead. It seems ironic that many of us studying or practising Buddhism today would be largely ignorant of Vedic thinking and therefore a lot of the references, comparisons and refutals are not immediately obvious to us. As @sujato points out, many Buddhist teachers even can’t differentiate between Buddhist and Vedic doctrine and mistakenly confuse one for the other.

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Sure, but the problem is, he did. Several times, quite explicitly. You’ll find it in the quote by Sunyo above, in the Agganna sutta, in the Brahmanadhammika sutta, and elsewhere. All of these cases are clearly responding to Vedic myth, and they are explicitly framed as such. So there’s no gap that to fill here, nothing missing.

Not sure what the point is here: obviously the Buddha was a Sakya. Some have argued that the Sakyans would not have had a Vedic background, but the problem is, we know little about them except from the Suttas and Vinaya, and the evidence there clearly indicates a connection with Vedism.

Just as one example, take DN 20. There we find reference to Vessanava (= Kuvera), gandhabbas, Vessamitta, Upamanyu, Matali, Sakka, Citrasena, various groups of nagas, garuḍā, Vajirahattha, Dānavas, Vepacitti, Pahārāda, Namuci, Bali, Virocana, Varuṇa, Soma, Vishnu, the Yamas, Purindada, and more. These are all attested in Vedas and other Brahmanical literature, and here they are literally in the Buddha’s home town.

It takes a special type of scholarship to say, “Let’s dispose of the only evidence that we have and assume the opposite conclusion”. I wish I could say this is unique, or even unusual, in Buddhist scholarship. Alas, it seems that what makes waves is contrarianism. Meanwhile, I’ll just keep on every day finding and documenting actual evidence of Vedic connections. :person_shrugging:

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I think the key difference is the idea of conditionality, which the buddha articulated first.

I think that there is ample evidence to sugest that ALL of the then current vedic cosmology, the then current jhana practice of the annihilationists, and the then cureent sceptical hieronomy of the abayakata where critiqed and reformulated as examples of conditionality.

Its pretty much all already there in DN1

Metta.

I rhink this is clearly true, in fact i think ots more or less taken for granted in the ebt, indeed relied upon, to pint out that any subject, (being) has an object, (experience, perception), and that therfore we have conditionality.

I agree, as I mentioned the connections do appear to be tenuous. And I agree there are far stronger connections elsewhere in the suttas.

I am just trying to frame it into what might be Jurewicz’s line of thinking, and why it might get such strong support from Gombrich. Like I mentioned, I still have an open mind about this, and willing to give the benefit of the doubt to both sides of the argument.

I personally feel that if there was meant to be an allusion to Vedic creation myth in the DO, surely there would have been a sutta that points this out explicitly. Perhaps there was, and it is lost in time, or perhaps the connections are indeed tenuous and forced.

Thanks Bhante, for some clarification and further thoughts. I think it’s generally helpful to rule out what Dependent Origination is not about. The subject is a matter of debate among Buddhists, of course, yet Gombrich for example considered the question settled after reading Jurewicz’ ideas.

The Mahanidāna Sutta is hardly the locus classicus indeed. It doesn’t even contain the full twelvefold sequence. The word nidāna itself is also uncommon in texts on DO and in the Mahanidāna is simply used as one of a string of near-synonyms. The discourse title itself most likely arose only at a later time, who knows exactly when. It would be much more interesting if the Nasadiya or other Vedic texts used paccaya instead, which the Buddhist texts use all the time in discussing DO.

To all who replied to the “subject-object” thing, I think people understand this terminology in different ways. If we’re talking about awareness and its content (or “objects”), then, yes, this is discussed in the factor of contact. I don’t think “subject-object” is a useful way to refer to this either, although my problem would be mostly with the word ‘subject’. Jurewicz means something else, though, for she says the subject-object separation is caused by ignorance and that it underlies DO more generally.

But this idea itself is based on a specific interpretation of the Vedic texts (which many scholars don’t share). Hence the overall argument seems rather circular. DO is interpreted in light of this specific interpretation of the Vedic texts, to show how it is a response to these Vedic texts.

Let me clarify the point I was making (and I agree it’s not clear from the way I have juxtaposed my reasoning). I am trying to determine whether the Vedic creation myth would have been top of mind for the Buddha upon awakening.

If he was a kṣatriya well versed in Vedic philosophy, possibly. If he was a Sakyan with (possibly) little exposure to Vedic philosophy, then possibly not. I think we all agree he became very familiar with the Vedic framework later on in life, no doubt due to his encounters with brahmins who opposed or questioned his teachings.

As you say, we don’t know for sure, so the question remains open in my mind.

To quote Gombrich from “Theravada Buddhism”:

Nevertheless, the Buddha’s birthplace is sufficiently far from anywhere mentioned in brahminical texts of that period to make one wonder whether Vedic civilization can have penetrated at all to where he was born and grew up. For instance, the brahminical kinship system was exogamous, whereas the Buddha’s kin seem to have married their cross-cousins. It is even possible that the Buddha’s mother tongue was not an Indo-Aryan language. Certainly, when he walked southeast into central Bihar, the scene of his Enlightenment, he encountered brahminical culture with the critical eye of someone who had not been brought up to take its presuppositions for granted.

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Sure, I understand people say things like this.

Kapilavatthu is 3 days walk from Janakpur, where Yajnavalkya debated King Janaka (or thereabouts). Is he saying that in two hundred years people were not walking a three day journey, a journey that was routinely accomplished on a casual basis in the Buddha’s day?

Brahmanical culture spread out over vast ranges and vast periods. Obviously they intermixed and interrelated in all kinds of ways with different people. Culture isn’t just a stamp that forces people to be a certain way.

In any case, while I agree that there does seem to be evidence of cousin marriage among the Sakyans, the whole picture with the Buddha’s family is so confused, so variable in different traditions, that it is really not possible to draw much from it.

This is what I meant when I said that there is this academic tendency to sideline or ignore the very clear and explicit evidence in favor of some kind of imagined universe.

My first realization of this was when I was researching the first “schism” in the Sangha. Pretty much every source I looked at talked about Ashoka’s “schism edict”. Imagine my surprise when I read it and it said, “The Sangha is united”. Literally the opposite. If Ashoka said it was united, then obviously there must have been a schism.

82twqn

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I know that it is not realy the topic, but while you also seem to want to adress this, some thoughts about this:

I agree with that last statement of Jurewicz. That is the message i also read in EBTs. The subject-object impression is based upon grasping the knowing aspect of mind, and viewing this wrongly as Me, an I. It comes with the impression that it is Me who sees, I who feel, Me who knows.

Me-and mine making create this subject-object duality in the mind, but it is not its pure nature. It is not the way it must know. This kind of dual knowing is caused. Indeed, ignorance feeds this me and mine-making and subject-object duality.

Any time there is more in the sensing then just sensing, the anusaya have been triggered.

The word ’ subject’ refers to the mental impression that inside us there is a self, a me, that does the thinking, the sensing, the feeling, the experiencing, the living, dying, the willing etc. Some kind of ruler and actor. Some kind of mental entity with controll. I think one can say that is very close to what we call an ego.

subject-object duality does not only underlie DO but it refers in general to a usual but still delusion way of understanding things. A defiled understanding, not pure. It is always in the domain of conceiving. One has conceived something as ‘this i am’ this is me’. That is the structure of subject-object dual knowing.

Maybe we can start a seperate thread on this or join an old one?

Haha, thanks Bhante.

To be fair to Gombrich though, the full context of what he was saying was that he was postulating that it was the beginning of the urbanisation period in India, and although there was some trade between towns, travel wasn’t prevalent. But then the Buddha himself travelled a fair bit, and surely things can’t have changed that much in a lifetime?

When you have finished identifying all the Vedic references in the suttas, I would love to read it. Will that be an upcoming essay?

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Indeed, and it’s not just that: the Sakyan republic was 300km west of Mithila, i.e. closer to the origins of Vedic culture. Anyway!

Ha ha, I don’t know about all, but certainly a lot. I have thought of some essays or whatever, but for now the best resource is the talks I’m doing for this vassa on a Friday night.

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Probably there were and are religious people from India who believe this idea of seeing Brahman as a kind of superior first being, a creator, is also a parody of what Brahman really is?

I think you can see this in any religion. Some see Brahman, God, Allah as some being, but there are also people who feel this is not oke, or only an imagine of…, the conceiving of…which is always distorted.
One can also say that whatever one imagines to be Brahman, God, Allah, it is not God, Allah, Brahman.
In EBT one can also see this that there is a point that one cannot objectify anymore.

Conceiving is a kind of grasping. And trying to understand things this way too. We are so used to rely on the proces of conceiving as means for developing understanding, but i feel that Buddha’s message is, that in the end it only distorts one understanding. I also feel this myself. I can feel that conceiving is not the right means to understand Dhamma. Or, it is relative.

I have never read any veda’s, but is it a fact that all these vedic texts see or describe Brahman as a being?

I don’t think it is the right topic, indeed. Unless you can explain what Jurewicz exactly means by it (which isn’t fully clear to me, though Reat whom she refers to doesn’t seem to understand it the way you do, nor Jurewicz herself actually).

Anyway, in the writing I referred to at the start I will go into this in more detail, so I don’t feel like discussing it now.

Perhaps, but Brahman is also anthropomorphized in the Upanishads, so this isn’t unique to the Buddhist texts.

As far as the creation myths go, yes. It’s hard to tell whether this is allegory or not, though.

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The Early Buddhist Texts (EBTs) do not claim that the ātman is ever-changing.

In fact the EBTs say the opposite i.e. Whatever is ever-changing cannot (according to the Buddha of the EBTs) be called ātman. So things that are ever-changing are called anātman (i.e. non-ātman).

What we (lay people or novices) might consider as defining ourselves (ātman) is either our physical body, or our feelings, or our conceptions, or our habits/practices, or our consciousness. The Buddha (according to the EBTs) says these skandhas arose at a point in time and are all perishable at a different point in time i.e. they are not the ātman (they are anātman) – so clinging to them thinking they are me/mine leads to duḥkha eventually.

From the MN147:

Taṁ kiṁ maññasi, rāhula, cakkhu niccaṁ vā aniccaṁ vā”ti?
What do you think Rāhula, is eyesight/vision everlasting or not?

“Aniccaṁ, bhante”.
Not everlasting, sir

“Yaṁ panāniccaṁ dukkhaṁ vā taṁ sukhaṁ vā”ti?
Whatever that’s not everlasting - would it be dukkha or sukha?

“Dukkhaṁ, bhante”.
Dukkha, sir

“Yaṁ panāniccaṁ dukkhaṁ vipariṇāmadhammaṁ, kallaṁ nu taṁ samanupassituṁ: ‘etaṁ mama, esohamasmi, eso me attā’”ti?
Whatever that is not everlasting, is dukkha and is liable to change - is it proper to consider such a thing as “this is mine, I am this, this is my self”?

“No hetaṁ, bhante”.
No indeed, sir.

So we see that whatever that is duḥkha/dukkha, anitya/anicca & anātman/anattā are not fit to be considered to be oneself (ātman/attā).

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