I’ve been reflecting on dependent origination and the English translations. I’m really struggling with the word viññāṇa and was hoping this subreddit could help. As I understand it from MN 9, there are six types of viññāṇa:
- Eye consciousness
- Ear consciousness
- Nose consciousness
- Tongue consciousness
- Body consciousness
- Mind consciousness
This use of the word, “consciousness” though seems somewhat clunky to me. Surely eye-consciousness is just seeing? In SN 35, the Buddha says that eye-consciousness is dependent on eye and form. In other words, if you blind someone, they would cease to have “eye-consciousness.”
If I see a table, I become aware of the sight and I categorise it as a table (as opposed to something else). This is what we mean by sight. By contrast, let’s say I saw a blur flash past me. A nearby friend asks, “did you see that?” If I was unable to categorise it I’d say, “no, I didn’t, it was moving too quickly.” Unless I’m misunderstanding, the English word seeing or sight seems to capture everything the Buddha meant by eye consciousness.
Dr. Alexander Berzin seems to support this idea noting (here):
Unlike the Western view of consciousness as a general faculty that can be aware of all sensory and mental objects, Buddhism differentiates six types of consciousness, each of which is specific to one sensory field or to the mental field. A primary consciousness cognizes merely the essential nature (ngo-bo) of an object, which means the category of phenomenon to which something belongs. For example, eye consciousness cognizes a sight as merely a sight.
If this is true, does the Buddha ever discuss the Western view of consciousness? It seems like Brahmins at the time certainly did. So, for example, we see texts on sakshi (a Sanskrit word meaning witness - often equated with atman). This witness sits prior to sight, hearing, smell, taste, etc. and is simply aware of all things as they arise. It’s what we might call the bare fact of consciousness.
If the Buddha did acknowledge that such a witness exists in the mind, what did he say about it? If he did not, then what are we to conclude from that?
I guess one could make a fairly compelling argument that if one were to be placed in a sensory depravation chamber, where one cannot see, hear, smell, or taste anything, where one is anaesthetised such that one cannot feel the body, and one’s mind is totally clear of thought, that arguably one would not be conscious. If that is the case, this idea of “witness consciousness” is simply a delusion arising from the fact one of the viññāṇa is always present in everyday life.
Why am I asking the question? I appreciate it may sound esoteric. However, I think it really matters. I have always taken the Western notion of witness consciousness as a given. If, in fact, what we call “consciousness” is simply a shadow cast by the presence of one of the six viññāṇa then anicca (impermanence) and anatta (non-self) make much more sense to me.
Very grateful for any thoughts or suggestions on what has probably been an unreasonably verbose question!